Pi is infinite. It’s also believed with a high degree of certainty (but not proven) to be a normal number, which basically means all the digits are evenly distributed over the infinite series. So if that is true, there would be an infinite number of 0s. Theoretically it could suddenly turn out to not be normal after a certain amount of digits are found, and then 0 could just stop entirely after a certain point, but this is incredibly unlikely.
Is that actually true or is that an unsolved problem?
It’s believed to be true to a high degree.
Pi is infinite. It’s also believed with a high degree of certainty (but not proven) to be a normal number, which basically means all the digits are evenly distributed over the infinite series. So if that is true, there would be an infinite number of 0s. Theoretically it could suddenly turn out to not be normal after a certain amount of digits are found, and then 0 could just stop entirely after a certain point, but this is incredibly unlikely.