Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?
Guess there will be some counter lynching then. I seen someone trying to intimidate voters outside, I’m going to shoot them, and walk over their corpse to vote.
So, you’d expect to do that with ICE is there in full tactical with bankup?