The graph is change in real prices that means inflation / cost of living adjusted. The anglophone countries would need to see equivalent real wage growth to make it just about salaries, which as far as I know they haven’t.
Lol wtf does that mean? What would a set of variables that isn’t “limited” even look like? What variables would you need to include to determine whether Anglophone countries had, indeed, built less housing and incurred greater price increases?
The graph is change in real prices that means inflation / cost of living adjusted. The anglophone countries would need to see equivalent real wage growth to make it just about salaries, which as far as I know they haven’t.
If only they taught you how to read graphs in school ://///
In statistics, making inferences and drawing conclusions from a limited number of variables is considered disingenuous (at best).
Lol wtf does that mean? What would a set of variables that isn’t “limited” even look like? What variables would you need to include to determine whether Anglophone countries had, indeed, built less housing and incurred greater price increases?
The statement in the title of the graph is fully supported by the data shown. What inferences do you think have been made in error here?